judaism for dummies

In order to collect the $100,000 prize you must successfully explain three things and, for each explanation, cite from the Torah: a) the book b) the chapter and c) the verse ( In case you don’t know,: The Torah is ONLY the first five books of the Old Testament).

Before the events in Exodus 24 Abraham and his descendants were called either Hebrews or Children of Israel and they worshiped the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. After the events described in Exodus 24 they are still called either Hebrews or Children of Israel. So: Where is the conversion? (In fact, no one in the Torah is called a Jew. The first person called a Jew is Mordichai in the Book of Esther).

OCDG: The jews have theft in their DNA, physical and spiritual… they stole the birthright of Ishmael (Muslims). How did they accomplish this? Easy, they just abruptly turned their entire society upside down. The entirety of the Middle East was Patriarchal, including the people of Abraham… so how is it that suddenly the “jews” are the only ones in the region to pass inheritance down through the mother? I won’t go into all the specifics but suffice it to say that Hagar, Ishmael’s mother, was a servant of Abraham and the jealous jews looked down (what else is new?) on her as a slave but according to God’s law (or tradition if you’re so inclined), heredity was only passed down through the male lineage. So how to “trick” God and deceive everyone else? Claim that you are a matriarchal society and always have been. Never mind if someone brings up (once every few thousand years does a jew realize they’ve been bs’d enough to investigate) that Abraham was the FATHER of nations and all the associated “baggage” that comes with that.

You see, according to the Quran, which every Muslim believes is the inerrant literal word of God, it was Ishmael, Abraham’s first born son that was offered up for sacrifice (willingly, he was told of this and accepted, as would befit righteous men God chose to lead mankind, not like the devilish way the Prophets are depicted in judaism). They go through a lot of warped logic and other shenanigans to make sure Isaac is instead put in Ishmael’s place.

Though you see, that isn’t enough… they have to malign Ishmael and His mother too, as icing on the cake. The lying scribes have described Ishmael as a mad man:

And he will be a wild man; his handwill be against every man, and every man’s hand against him; and he shall dwell in the presence of all his brethren.  -Genesis 16:12

So they defame Him and just ask any jew or judeo-Christian today and they’ll tell you:

CHOOSE JERUSALEM ABOVE (SARAH)

Then we have this verse :

And as for Ishmael, I have heard thee; behold, I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful, and will multiply him exceedingly; twelve princes shall he beget, and I will make him a great nation.  – Genesis 17:20

To the unaided eye this contradicts with the previous quote… but if you understand what actually occurred then it will be crystal clear :

LYING PEN OF THE SCRIBES

Check out http://quranandbible.blogspot.com/2014/01/ishmael-and-isaac-in-quran-and-bible.html (or a whole host of others like it) to see the “other side”

The jews thought they could add and subtract to God’s word… but those with eyes that can see, can still find remnants of the truth in the Old Testament. This is yet another sign from God…

There are many who will read this and say “so what” “who gives a care”… if you don’t realize the enormous importance of this, I kindly ask you to refrain from commenting.


JPost

Basically, this is just a variation of the $10,000 Torah Challenge which ran on the website: “Hub Pages” for over two years. No one succeeded in claiming that prize and I very seriously doubt any one will claim this prize either.

Despite the various declarations of many different rabbis, the oral law is NOT merely an expansion of the ideas presented in the written law. For the most part, the oral law is a direct contradiction to the laws found in the written Torah.

Nevertheless, I am open to learning something new. In fact, I am willing to pay you to teach me something new.

So, here’s the challenge:

In order to collect the $100,000 prize you must successfully explain three things and, for each explanation, cite from the Torah: a) the book b) the chapter and c) the verse ( In case you don’t know,: The Torah is ONLY the first five books of the Old Testament).

First: If Judaism is based on matrilineal descent, then you must explain: a)How Sarah is the mother of Rebecca b)How Rebecca is the mother of Leah c) How Leah is the mother of the Canaanite woman who married Judah and gave birth to Onan, Er and Selah…(For extra credit: You can explain how Leah is the mother of Judah’s daughter in law: Tamar).

(If you want to claim that Sarah, Rebecca and Leah were not really Jewish, that is okay. Just cite the Book, Chapter and Verse in the Torah which explicitly states they were not really Jewish).

For example: In the Book of Numbers, chapter 14, lines 11 and 12, God threatens to destroy all the people and raise up a new nation from the seed of Moses. Since God did not do this, it clearly demonstrates that the Israelites were the same people as Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Furthermore, God clearly states that if he did raise up this new nation, it would be from the seed of Moses, not from the descendants of Zipporah: the Medianite wife of Moses. Furthermore, in the Book of Deuteronomy, chapter 9, lines 17 and 18: Moses clearly tells the people that they are not to believe that they somehow deserved to inherit the land and he goes on to explain that the ONLY reason they were indeed inheriting the land was because of the promises made to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.

So: if you want to prove that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were not really Jewish, you would have to locate the appropriate verses which directly contradict the ones I have just quoted.

Second: If Judaism is based on matrilineal descent then you must give the names of nine generations of Jewish mothers and daughters:

So, for example: In The Book of Exodus, chapter 6, lines 16 thru 26, it explains that:….Abraham begat Isaac who begat Jacob who begat Levi who begat Kohath who begat Amram who begat Aaron who begat Eleazar who begat Phinehas.

Now all you have to do is provide a similar list for the ladies…

In other words: you must prove that the wife of Amram, for example, was Jewish because her mother was Jewish. Therefore you must give the name of both his wife and her mother, you cannot simply state that the law requires a priest to marry a Jew. You must prove that Amram complied with the law and this law was based on matrilineal descent. Basically, what I am saying is that both Amram and his wife were indeed Jewish, but that it was their fathers who were Jewish, not their mothers.

Third: In the Book of Numbers, chapter 31, lines 36 thru 40 it states that the Israelites took 16,000 Midianite virgins as wives. How can Judaism pass thru the mother if 16,000 of those mothers were Medianites ?

(If you want to claim that all 16,000 Midianite virgins converted to Judaism before they married, that’s okay…just quote the Book, Chapter and Verse where it explicitly says that they did indeed convert).

Nevertheless, don’t get too excited. No matter what the Chabad Movement or other orthodox rabbis claim, the events described in Exodus 24 are not a conversion. When a Roman Catholic stops worshiping Jesus, converts his religion to Islam and begins to worship Allah, then that is a real conversion. Before the events in Exodus 24 Abraham and his descendants were called either Hebrews or Children of Israel and they worshiped the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. After the events described in Exodus 24 they are still called either Hebrews or Children of Israel. So: Where is the conversion? (In fact, no one in the Torah is called a Jew. The first person called a Jew is Mordichai in the Book of Esther).

If a reform Jew decides to join an orthodox community, that is not a conversion. Possibly, one might call it: “an up-grade”, but a mere change in one’s religioius lifestyle does not constitute a conversion. For example: The laws of Judaism which orthodox communities follow today are different from those which governed the life of King David. Are modern Jews: “converts to Judaism”?

The Torah speaks only about intermarriage, not conversions. If you believe the Medianites converted, then you must prove it….

Well, that’s it….Piece of cake, right? After all, “everyone” knows Judaism passes thru the mother. So submit your answer today and collect your prize…

Or better yet, forward this article to your rabbi and have him submit “an official” answer…

Good luck…

P.S. In the previous 10,000 dollar challenge ONLY comments which provided answers to the questions were allowed and any general comments were deleted. This time, any comment you want to make will be allowed, but you will only be paid if you fulfill ALL THREE conditions and give specific answers as required. Also, answers can ONLY be submitted to this article as it appears on The Jerusalem Post website. (i.e. You cannot post your answer to another website).

0 thoughts on “$100,000 Torah challenge: Prove From The Written Torah That Judaism Is Based On Matrilineal Descent”
  1. I have been mentioning this switch for a long time on various boards to demonstrate one reason why Judaism is false. Even the New Testament has the Patriarchal line leading to Jesus. How a matriarchy came about is beyond me. Could be because Motherhood is never in doubt.

    Either way, about Galatians. The Catholic Church always taught that Hagar is a type of the Old Covenant, or the Law, or the Jews. Sara, on the other hand, is the type for the Church. This has nothing to do with Muslims. Just like the entire New Testament does not mention Muslims. As always were talking carnal vs spiritual. That’s all Blessed Paul in his letter to the Galatians is getting at in these particular verses.

  2. @ #1 by gloriosaedominae1
    ” How a matriarchy came about is beyond me. Could be because Motherhood is never in doubt. ”
    No, not at all – Jews are perfidious, so in the old times, when males were slaughtered, but some females, young, not much used, were saved, this idea about “mother -> jews” was giving the chance, that even after slaughtering all Jews, they will slowly recover.
    So the victors, tired after slaughtering, sleepy after copulating with Jewesses, didn’t know their future…

  3. All well and good and I like how you think, but it all comes down to is this,is the bible true.So there you can see how they can go aganist the word of god.There has to be a god for it to be true?There is a big connection with Egyptian gods and their gods and quite possible Moses, Abraham etc, are all Pharoahs and your connection is the Hebrews were there took their religion but changed it to suit them.Thats where you might have this problem about the scribes changinging the word of god.There is definitely something going on , but all the old text were desroyed and covered up.Please read Osman Ahmeds books,maybe true and puts a new lght ands seems to connect the dots.Just food for thought.

  4. Refer to the comment by #1

    “Just like the entire New Testament does not mention Muslims.”

    Does NT mention the words “Christian,” “Christianity,” or “Church”? No. You will never find these words or their Greek equivalent in the NT! And by the way, the Old Testament never mentions the word “Judaism.”

    The words “Muslim” and “Islam” are Arabic words, and therefore how does anyone expect to see Arabic words in Greek or English Bibles? Islam is a religion that requires its followers to submit their will to the Will of their Creator. Hence, a Muslim is a person who has chosen to submit his/her will to the Will of his/her Creator. Now check your Bible thoroughly and you will discover that Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Jesus submitted their will to the Will of their Creator. Therefore, what should their faith be called in Arabic language? ISLAM. In fact, all the prophets were Muslims, because they chose to submit their will to the Will of their Creator!

  5. I do not believe in “the books” nor that humans were created in Mesapotamia. There is far too much evidence of very ancient global cultures and societies pre dating ” the books”.

    But as far as the writings go and the mayhem that they bring because of religious beliefs, this is a very good piece

  6. @ the discussion between gloriosaedominae1 and akidahamad …

    Jesus DID say the word ‘Muslim’ in the original Aramaic Gospel.

    LUKE 6:40 (in Aramaic) :

    “EIN TALMEED NA’LEH ‘AL RABBO; SHEKKEN KAL ADAM SHE’MUSHLAM YIHYEH K’RABBO.”

    Translation: : “No student can be above his Teacher, but anyone that is ‘Muslim’ (completely submitted to Al’lah/ God) can be as his Teacher.”

    [This, by the way, resonates with the Sunni stance on ‘Succession’ of Leadership.]

    [One must remember that Hebrew, Aramaic and Arabic share the same Root language, which is known as “Common Semitic”.]

    It appears that a Key to enhancing Muslim-Christian understanding/ bond is to go back to Aramaic. It’ll get rid of Judeo-Zio-Christian/Evangelical ploys and assaults on “Peace and Harmony among Humanity”. It’ll put the Terry Jones’ out of business soon, too.

    [I give due credit for the Aramaic Translation to a brother called Reality Check on Google+. May God Bless him/ his efforts, and may Blessed Jesus greet him with glad tidings upon his return.]

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